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@5BY8M8WAnswersSocial IssuesMarital RapeStarted 6yrs agoActive 1yr ago

Yes

But in case a married person declines having sex with their spouse, after a set amount of time ( for example 6 months ), the spouse would have the right to file for divorce without having to pay mortgage. Also, in case married person declines having sex with their spouse and this leads to the spouse having extra-marital affairs, this could not be grounds for divorce or legal persecution.

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3 Replies

 @9RHK5N6Alliance from New York  commented…2yrs2Y

Ah, I see you’ve cheated on your fair share of wives.

  @top_mastiffRepublican  from Connecticut  disagreed…2yrs2Y

Engaged Social Issues Engaged Marital Rape

I see. So you think that sex is the only part of a marriage? You sound lustful. I'm sure nobody want's to marry you with that attitude, knowing that if they refuse to fufil YOUR desires they will get cheated on. The desire for sex should not be a driving part of marriage. 1 Thessalonians 4:3-5 "It is God's will that you should be sanctified, that you should avoid sexual immorality, that each of you should learn to control your own body in a way that is holy and honorable". So don't be driven by sexual immortality, and control yourself.

  @CrowWatchingSocialist from Utah  disagreed…4yrs4Y

Marriages for the sole purpose of sex, without the other parties documented consent, should be considered marriage fraud or, in worse cases, rape. If not those, alimony must be paid along with mortgages

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@5BY8M8W

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PartyUndeclaredLocationLubec, ME