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“If a dealer knowingly sells a gun to a criminal or suspects it will be used in a crime, then yes. If they have followed all the laws and had no reason to suspect the gun is going to be used in the commission of a crime, then no. As for manufacturers, if they manufacture a gun that has the sole purpose of killing people or committing crimes, then yes, otherwise no.”

From a Democrat in Lincoln, NE
In reponse to: Should victims of gun violence be allowed to sue firearms dealers and manufacturers?

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