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719 Replies

 @LeBonkGreen from Minnesota  answered…6yrs6Y

Yes, but only to influence public opinion, not tamper with a fair voting process, and only to protect against human rights violations

 @8KHV7NDAmerican from Texas  answered…6yrs6Y

Yes, but only to protect the country from human rights violations by a tyrannical ruler and never to tamper with a fair voting process

 @8H6HNCP from North Carolina  answered…6yrs6Y

Yes, but only to influence public opinion by spreading truth to counteract propoganda and to encourage democracy.

 @8GPQTKX from Massachusetts  answered…6yrs6Y

 @8GDX7CJ from Ohio  answered…6yrs6Y

This falls into the world of spooks, and things I don't even want to know about. This is a thing where stated policy and reality may differ some...

 @8FQMZSN from Florida  answered…6yrs6Y

No, it sets a dangerous precedent and undermines our own present complaints about foreign interference in our elections. In extreme cases (such as tyrants engaging in human rights violations, or the legitimate potential for international violence, war, etc.) there are other means of dealing with the problem. National sovereignty is and of a right ought to be sacrosanct.

 @8CL2ZYG from Kansas  answered…6yrs6Y

No but we should refuse to recognize the results of fraudulent elections.

 @9B5FVQY from Washington  answered…3yrs3Y

No, but pro-democratic politicians in mainly autocratic countries must be put into concern.

 @8G7F9S2 from Texas  answered…6yrs6Y

We don't want foreign influence in our politics, so it just stands to reason that we would stay out of other nations' elections.

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