You're misrepresenting the Bible

Jesus never claimed "1 man, 1 woman". The verses are part of a larger passage (Matthew 19:3-9) where Jesus is responding to the Pharisees' question about divorce. He references Genesis 1:27 and 2:24 to explain that marriage was intended to be a lifelong union. However, this passage does not explicitly say that Jesus was defining marriage as exclusively one man and one woman, nor does it address all possible marriage structures directly.

Even the next verse:

"For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh."

This is a direct reference to Genesis 2:24, which describes the traditional model of marriage. However, even this does not necessarily mean Jesus was making a definitive statement against all other forms of relationships—it was primarily addressing divorce in this context.

Takes an atheist to truly understand it I guess. Instead of spouting nonsense. Read the book yourself. Or don't, just stop quoting a book you've never read that has no basis on today's issues.